A 69-year-old male presents to the primary care clinic with progressive lower urinary tract symptoms over the past year, including urinary hesitancy, weak stream, nocturia (3–4 times nightly), and a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. He denies dysuria or hematuria. Digital rectal exam reveals a symmetrically enlarged, smooth prostate. PSA is mildly elevated but stable compared with prior results. Transrectal ultrasound estimates prostate volume at 45 g. You conclude his diagnosis is benign prostatic hypertrophy with moderate to severe symptoms and an enlarged prostate. His medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well controlled. Current medications include amlodipine and atorvastatin. He reports no history of orthostatic hypotension. Question Which pharmacologic management plan is most appropriate at this time?

All of the following regarding antacids are true EXCEPT:

Which of the following pharmacological agent/s used in the treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) directly targets the proton pump responsible for gastric acid secretion?

Which one of the following medications is known to cause mucosal injury?

A 68-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of intermittent heartburn occurring several times per week. His medical history includes hypertension, chronic kidney disease stage 3, and osteoarthritis. Current medications include lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, levothyroxine, and calcium supplements. He reports using an over-the-counter antacid daily for symptom relief and states, “I usually take it with my morning medications because it works faster that way.” He denies abdominal pain but reports intermittent constipation over the past month.   What is the most appropriate counseling statement by the FNP?

A 32-year-old female with a 5-year history of ulcerative colitis presents to your family practice clinic with a 3-week history of worsening abdominal cramping, urgency, and 6–8 bloody stools per day. She reports fatigue and unintentional weight loss. She has been maintained on oral mesalamine with good control until recently. Vital signs are stable. Labs show mild anemia and elevated CRP. Stool studies are negative for infection. Colonoscopy performed last year showed moderate left-sided disease. She has never received immunomodulators or biologic therapy. You initiate oral prednisone for induction of remission. After 4 weeks, her symptoms improve, but she develops recurrent symptoms during steroid tapering. Which finding indicates the need to escalate therapy beyond glucocorticoids?

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of oxybutynin?

Which of the following would be a threat to a state’s sovereignty?

Eventually the balloon has enough air in it to just start lifting the container. This happens when the balloon’s diameter is 3m.  What is the mass in kg of the container and its contents, including the seawater filling it?

Marxist theory holds that which of the following are most important for understanding global politics?