A 48-year-old recreational tennis player sustains a partial…

A 48-year-old recreational tennis player sustains a partial Achilles tendon rupture and elects for conservative treatment. At the 4-week follow-up, he remains non–weight bearing in a long-leg cast with the ankle immobilized in approximately 15° of plantar flexion. Which of the following clinical rationales and progression steps best reflect the appropriate conservative management protocol for this condition?

A 68-year-old patient is recovering from an unstable trimall…

A 68-year-old patient is recovering from an unstable trimalleolar ankle fracture that was treated with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). At her 6-week postoperative visit, she reports being eager to start walking without her boot. The physician’s protocol specifies non–weight-bearing for 10 weeks with gradual progression thereafter. Which of the following clinical actions by the PTA is most appropriate at this stage of rehabilitation?

A 42-year-old nurse reports heel pain that is worst with her…

A 42-year-old nurse reports heel pain that is worst with her first steps in the morning. Her doctor recommends wearing a night splint that keeps her ankle slightly dorsiflexed (about 5°) and her toes gently extended while she sleeps. Which of the following best explains why this treatment helps reduce her morning pain?

A 20-year-old soccer player reports recurrent episodes of th…

A 20-year-old soccer player reports recurrent episodes of the ankle “giving way,” particularly when cutting or landing from a jump. She denies a recent acute sprain but notes mild swelling after intense activity. Clinical examination reveals normal ligament integrity on stress testing but poor balance and delayed peroneal muscle activation during dynamic movements. Which combination of factors most accurately explains the cause of her functional ankle instability?