A 36 year old female presents to your office with a 2 day hi…

A 36 year old female presents to your office with a 2 day history of lower abdominal pain that has progressively worsened. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. Denies fever, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge or urinary symptoms. LMP was 5 weeks ago. Is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. Vital signs are stable. On exam, cervical os appears closed with a small amount of dark brownish-red blood in vaginal canal. No cervical motion tenderness. Does have left adnexal tenderness without obvious mass. What is the most appropriate initial test that should be performed to support your suspected diagnosis? 

You are seeing a 24 year old female with a 2 day history of…

You are seeing a 24 year old female with a 2 day history of urinary frequency, urgency and dysuria. No hematuria. No fever, nausea or vomiting. No flank pain or abdominal pain. No new sexual partners. You obtain a urinalysis and micro urine looks like this:Bacteria: 3 plusWBC: 15-20RBC: 2Blood: noneNitrate: noneLeukocyte esterase: small amount What is the likely pathogen? What antibiotic will you prescribe? Please include Medication, route, dose, frequency and duration.

A 21 year old male presents to the clinic after “twisting” l…

A 21 year old male presents to the clinic after “twisting” left ankle after jogging. He tells you he believes his ankle “rolled in” at the time of injury. He is able to bear weight but is having pain doing so. On exam, there is minimal ecchymosis and swelling on the lateral side of the left ankle. No ligamentous laxity. What is the treatment of choice for this patient?