17 yo male was playing quarterback during high school game.  During the cocking phase of a throw he was hit from behind and suffered an anterior dislocation. What ligamentous structure was most likely torn in this position of the shoulder?

The patient also reports that she is beginning to have symptoms at work and intermittently throughout the day while using her computer. She was advised by her primary care physician to try a “wrist splint.” What type of orthosis (wrist splint) is indicated at this point?

The patient was able to perform lateral step-downs on a 4-inch step 15 times before she became fatigued. During her execution of this exercise, you noticed that her pelvis was dropping on the uninvolved side.  What is your hypothesis regarding the cause of the pelvic drop?

 The patient should be placed into which of the following ICF impairment categories?

The patient is a 22-year-old female with complaints of bilateral medial leg pain. She started “boot camp” at the regional army training facility 3 weeks ago and the pain has been progressively increasing since that time. She states she has had similar pain before but it has always resolved on its own. This time it seems to be getting worse, and she really wants to get back to her squad. The current pain ranged from 4/10 to 7/10 increasing with activity. The pain can be mostly described as a relative ache but local to the medial side of her leg. She is overweight with a BMI of 29 but has been losing weight over the last year after she decided to enlist with the army. She also starting running. She quit smoking 6 months ago.   Treatment for medial tibial stress syndrome should begin with:

What is the best initial intervention to give to this patient?

Based on your above diagnosis, which would be the primary intervention that you would perform?

Patient is a 45-year-old male presenting 6 weeks post-op Lt rotator cuff repair. The operative note indicates the patient had a medium sized tear in the supraspinatus without signs of atrophy or fatty infiltration. The patient is left hand dominant and wants to eventually return to work as a mechanic. He is progressing appropriately in physical therapy. Which the following is an appropriate rehab goal at this time?

Neuromuscular electrical stimulation was applied to the quadriceps muscle.  The stimulation was done at 60° of knee flexion and the intensity was increased to at least 30% of the patient’s daily maximum voluntary isometric contraction, as described previously. This patient was also progressed to a cane to facilitate more symmetrical weight bearing and greater functional use of the left lower extremity. By week 2 she had full active knee extension. During gait, she continued to ambulate with a flexed knee during stance since she was not functionally using her extension. Standing terminal knee extension with resistance band (Figure) was added to her program. Cues to increase knee extension during stance were reinforced during gait training. By week 3, the patient’s main complaint was difficulty descending and ascending stairs. Upon reevaluation, she had 0° to 130° of active knee range of motion. She had a 3.5-cm girth difference left to right measured at midpatella. She continued to ambulate with a single-point cane in a symmetrical step pattern. Maximum volitional isometric contraction testing showed the right quadriceps produced 440 N and the left produced 297 N of force; the quadriceps force production of the left was 68% of the right. The Timed Get Up and Go Test was completed in 9.1 seconds; the Stair-climbing test was finished in 18.45 seconds. Her Knee Outcome Survey was 77%. The patient’s main impairment at this time is:

If you wanted to look at the influence of the external cervical musculature in cervical rotation what test could you perform to evaluate?