Which of the following is least indicative of premenstrual syndrome?

A 42 year old female presents with abnormal uterine bleeding.  A hormonal profile reveals  increased FSH levels.  The most likely cause for these findings is:

A single measurement of an FSH level of 30mIU/ml in a 49 y.o. perimenopausal woman who has been experiencing amenorrhea for 6 months is:

The most frequent cause of secondary amenorrhea in a sexually active young female adult is:

Related to the above scenario, the most likely diagnosis for a non-sexually active, otherwise healthy patient in this age group would be:

A 48yo woman who has not had a menstrual cycle for 12 months asks whether she is in menopause.  Which is the best response for the nurse practitioner to give?

Although not an approved indication, studies have indicated that HT may have the benefit of decreasing the risk for:

A postmenopausal woman complains of vaginal itching and dyspareunia. The vaginal mucosa appears thin, dry, and pale.  The most likely diagnosis is:

The most common type of malignant ovarian cancer is:

During a routine pelvic examination of a 22 year old female who is not sexually active, you find a 2cm, mobile, mildly tender, cystic ovarian mass.  The patient had a normal LMP 3 weeks ago.  Appropriate management would include: