A 60-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes, obesity, and heart…

A 60-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes, obesity, and heart failure (reduced ejection fraction) presents for medication optimization. His A1c remains elevated despite metformin therapy. The APRN is considering adding either a GLP-1 receptor agonist or an SGLT2 inhibitor. Which of the following best supports choosing an SGLT2 inhibitor over a GLP-1 receptor agonist in this patient?