Same facts as prior question, so work carries over.  (but fa…

Same facts as prior question, so work carries over.  (but facts restated below). New Question below in bold print A firm currently has no debt.  An estimate of the firm’s equity beta with no debt = 0.6.  The risk free rate is 0.04 (4%).  The market risk premium is 0.05 (or 5%).  The firm wishes to move to a percentage of debt financing = wD =  D / (D+ E) = 0.20.  The firm will target this  wD over time so if firm value grows, so will dollar amount of debt.  Assume the firm can borrow at a rate of 0.04 (or 4%).  The firm’s tax rate is .25. (25%) What will firm’s WACC be after the firm moves to wD =  D / (D+ E) = 0.20 ? Give exact answer up to four decimal places.  So, if answer were hypothetically 12.342% you would write 0.1234.