A woman who was treated for primary syphilis 1 year ago now has the following test results: VDRL nonreactive and FTA-ABS positive. These findings indicate:

Potential disadvantages of progestin-only implants (Nexplanon) include:

A 60-year-old patient comes in and reports that she was washing herself in the shower and noticed a “lump” in her vulva. It is asymptomatic and does not bother her.  Exam reveals the following:

A 23-year-old patient presents to your office complaining of intermenstrual bleeding for 3 months. The bleeding is not heavy or prolonged, but occurs more frequently than once per month.  She uses birth control pills for contraception and has not missed any pills.  Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

Your patient comes to see you for a problem visit 8 weeks postpartum.  She reports that her menses have not resumed after the birth of her daughter.  She is breastfeeding.  The best response is:

A 20-year-old patient presents to your office complaining of acute left lower quadrant pain. Transvaginal ultrasound identifies a simple 5 cm cyst on the left ovary.  You should:

The most effective treatment for managing moderate to severe menopausal symptoms associated with menopause is:

Urine pregnancy tests detect:

Which of the following estrogen replacement options does not require opposition by a progestin in a woman with an intact uterus?

The process of involution takes place over which of the following time frames?