How far in advance of a procedure/surgery, should a pre-op evaluation occur?

The incidence of multi-drug resistant (MDR) organisms causing UTIs is increasing along with mortality. Identifying risk factors for the development of MDR gram negative bacteria could have a big impact on patient care and management. Which of the following details of a patient’s history, occurring in the past 3 months, is NOT a risk factor for multi-drug resistant gram negative UTIs?

An asymptomatic pregnant woman has positive leukocyte esterase and positive nitrites on a urine dipstick screening. What will the APRN do next?

Your next patient is a 62-year-old man. He informs you that he has been experiencing epigastric pain and a sharp, burning, aching, gnawing pain 2-3 hours after eating.  He has had two episodes of vomiting in the past two days. He describes the vomit as containing mostly gastric secretions that look like coffee grounds. What diagnosis does this symptom suggest?

Your next patient is a 30-year-old pregnant woman reporting right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 2-3 days. Which diagnostic test will the APRN safely order to evaluate this patient’s symptoms?

Cholelithiasis (gallstones) are caused by hardened deposits of bile and increased cholesterol secretions. Some people are more prone to the development of cholelithiasis (gallstones) than other people.  Which of the following is NOT considered a common risk factor for cholelithiasis (gallstone) formation?

Cholelithiasis and cholecystitis are worldwide disorders that result from inflammatory, infectious, neoplastic, metabolic, and congenital conditions. Which of following statements is NOT true regarding cholecystitis?

A 63-year-old male patient has intermittent left-sided lower abdominal pain and fever associated with bloating and constipation alternating with diarrhea. The APRN suspects this patient may have:

Your next patient presents with acute jaundice, there are many causes of this condition. It is important to determine the underlying cause of jaundice. Which of the following is NOT considered a common risk factors for acute jaundice?

A 36 year patient presents to clinic with acute onset of abdominal pain.  On abdominal exam, a maneuver is performed involving flexing the patient’s right hip to 90 degrees and internally rotating the righ hip by moving the knee inward or medially. The patient reports no abdominal pain with this movement. What physical exam maneuver was performed and what condition is less likely at this point?