A 17-year-old young man is seen with severe itching of his hands and feet. He has no lesions between his fingers and no one else in the family is itching. He has seen multiple clinicians in the past 5 months and has been given many types of topical steroids and antihistamines. The last clinician referred him for psychotherapy, thinking that this must be psychogenic. On close examination, there are multiple burrows on the hand which confirmed Scabies. What is the first line therapy?
A 64-year old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is dia…
A 64-year old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be a poor choice for controlling her diabetes?
The drug of choice for treating hypertension in pregnancy is…
The drug of choice for treating hypertension in pregnancy is:
Medications approved for use in children for treatment of DM…
Medications approved for use in children for treatment of DM, Type 2 include metformin and insulin.
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter mediating ganglionic t…
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter mediating ganglionic transmission. Which of the following receptors mediate acetylcholine effects at the autonomic ganglia?
A 48-year-old white man presents to the emergency department…
A 48-year-old white man presents to the emergency department with unremitting right flank pain. He denies dysuria and fever. He reports significant nausea without vomiting. He has never experienced anything like this before. On examination, he is afebrile, and his blood pressure is 160/80 mm Hg with a pulse rate of 110/min. His right flank is mildly tender to palpation, and abdominal examination is benign. Urinalysis is significant for 1+ blood, and microscopy reveals 10–20 red blood cells per high-power field. Nephrolithiasis is suspected, and the patient is intravenously hydrated and given pain medication with temporary relief. Which statement is untrue regarding patient education?
Which antifungal drug is NOT absorbed from the GI tract, an…
Which antifungal drug is NOT absorbed from the GI tract, and therefore oral administration results in “topical” treatment along the GI tract (swish and swallow)
A patient is prescribed niacin to reduce his/her triglycerid…
A patient is prescribed niacin to reduce his/her triglyceride and LDL-C levels. The side effect(s) of niacin that most commonly limits patient compliance include
When is the timing of the peak onset of action of insulin gl…
When is the timing of the peak onset of action of insulin glargine?
A 56-year-old man diagnosed with a MRSA infection expresses…
A 56-year-old man diagnosed with a MRSA infection expresses concern that he has never “not finished” an antibiotic and has always followed the instructions. Why is he now experiencing antibiotic resistance?