A patient with a suspected scaphoid fracture is referred to PT.  Which clinical sign is MOST indicative of a scaphoid fracture?

The therapist pictured is applying a downward mobilizing force to the glenohumeral joint in an attempt to improve: Shoulder flexion.jpg

During periods of immobilization following a grade II A-C sprain, which of the following can be utilized?

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding scoliosis?

A PTA prepares to assess a patient’s triceps using a reflex hammer.  As discussed in lab, an appropriate positioning of the patient’s arm during the testing procedure is:

As discussed in class, which of the following describe(s) the most common positions, which once combined, may induce anterior glenohumeral subluxation or dislocation? (pick any that apply)

A 53 year old patient has adhesive capsulitis.  He is expected to do well with all of the following except:

A PTA reviews the initial PT eval on a patient he is treating. The report indicates that the therapist was able to displace the patient’s elbow joint laterally during ligamentous testing. What ligament is potentially involved?

If a patient has a positive C-Spine Distraction Test, the MOST appropriate intervention might be:

IN YOUR OWN WORDS –Mrs. Spurlin’s mom was diagnosed with a malignancy in the right breast and her surgeon removes 16 of her axillary lymph nodes. Following surgery, she experiences edema of the right upper extremity. Explain why.