The patient is a 79-year-old woman referred to the clinic 3…

The patient is a 79-year-old woman referred to the clinic 3 weeks after a left total knee arthroplasty. She had received home physical therapy for 4 visits to initiate range of motion and strengthening after surgery. At the time of the initial evaluation, she complained of intermittent central knee pain with walking; she denied pain at rest. Her goal was to be able to walk through a large mall without pain in order to shop with her daughter. She had a right total knee arthroplasty 2 years ago. Comorbidities include hypertension and gastroesophageal reflux. disease. Upon evaluation, the patient’s involved leg active range of motion was lacking 2° extension and she was able to flex her knee to 128°. Active range of motion on the uninvolved was 0° to 132°. Her incision was well healed with puckering at rest; hypomobility of the scar was noted with palpation. Her patellar mobility was slightly decreased superiorly and inferiorly. Measurements at mid-patella revealed a girth 5 cm greater on the left. A quadriceps lag was observed with straight leg raise. Quadriceps maximum voluntary isometric contraction testing at 60° was 425 N on the right and 202 N on the left, indicating the left quadriceps force was 48% of the right. Strength testing of the hip flexors, abductors, and ankle dorsiflexors was 4/5. She was utilizing a rolling walker for ambulation. The authors noted her stance time was equal, but decreased weight bearing on the left was observed. In addition, she ambulated with a flexed knee gait. Her Knee Outcome Scale was 66%. Functional testing included the Timed Get Up and Go Test, measured at 9.8 seconds, and the Stair-climbing test, which she performed in 25.6 seconds. Your initial tactics to address the range of motion impairments would include:

The patient also reports that she is beginning to have sympt…

The patient also reports that she is beginning to have symptoms at work and intermittently throughout the day while using her computer. She was advised by her primary care physician to try a “wrist splint.” What type of orthosis (wrist splint) is indicated at this point?

The patient was able to perform lateral step-downs on a 4-in…

The patient was able to perform lateral step-downs on a 4-inch step 15 times before she became fatigued. During her execution of this exercise, you noticed that her pelvis was dropping on the uninvolved side.  What is your hypothesis regarding the cause of the pelvic drop?

The patient is a 22-year-old female with complaints of bilat…

The patient is a 22-year-old female with complaints of bilateral medial leg pain. She started “boot camp” at the regional army training facility 3 weeks ago and the pain has been progressively increasing since that time. She states she has had similar pain before but it has always resolved on its own. This time it seems to be getting worse, and she really wants to get back to her squad. The current pain ranged from 4/10 to 7/10 increasing with activity. The pain can be mostly described as a relative ache but local to the medial side of her leg. She is overweight with a BMI of 29 but has been losing weight over the last year after she decided to enlist with the army. She also starting running. She quit smoking 6 months ago.   Treatment for medial tibial stress syndrome should begin with: