A gram stain of urethral discharge from a man  showing extracellular and intracellular gram-negative diplococci within segmented neutrophils is a presumptive identification for: 

44. When caring for a woman that has a high postpartum hemorrhage risk score, the RN knows to uses the 5T’s to help determine what might increase the risk factor for the patient.  The RN assess which of the following:  Mark the most appropriate. 

Which species of Haemophilus causes pinkeye (purulent conjunctivitis)?  (11.18)

Kingella kingae is usually associated with which type of infection? 

75. Around half of all postpartum hemorrhages are preventable. 

The major organ impacted by Chlamydia in the newborn is the

What diagnostic enzyme does Helicobacter pylori make in abundance? (8.6)

Which of the following products is responsible for satellite growth of Haemophilus spp around colonies of Staphyloccocus and Neisseria spp on sheep blood agar? 

A 42-year-old male is having symptoms of a urinary tract infection. The urine culture grows 10^5 pure organisms. The gram stain shows gram positive rods. The isolated bacteria is urease positive. Which of the following is most likely?

69. When assessing a 12 year old child the RN learns the child is having problems with enuresis for the past 6 months.  The nurse will ask the child further questions.  Mark all that apply.