A 48 yr old post menopausal Asian woman presents to the offi…
A 48 yr old post menopausal Asian woman presents to the office for a physical. She has blood pressure readings of 146-152/90-94 documented over 2 months on three separate occasions. She has no other medical conditions. Her ECG and creatinine are normal and she has no proteinuria. She has mild trace lower extremity edema bilateral. Clinical findings in today’s office visit are BP 145/92, HR 62, BMI 26, RRR, S1, S2, no S3, S4 or murmur, point of maximal impulse at fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. Which of the following represents the best treatment for her high blood pressure?