A 55 y/o male underwent percutaneous coronary intervention (…
A 55 y/o male underwent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) after a myocardial infarction. He was started on aspirin and clopidogrel (Plavix) daily post procedure. Three months later, he experiences a recurrence of chest pain and is admitted with another myocardial infarction. Stent thrombosis is the diagnosis. The cardiologist determines that he is likely a non-responder to clopidogrel. Which explanation supports the cardiologist’s hypothesis? Clopidogrel is a pro-drug metabolized to its active form by Cyp 2C19