A 40-year-old G4P2103 at 15 weeks estimated gestational age…
A 40-year-old G4P2103 at 15 weeks estimated gestational age by LMP presents for her initial prenatal appointment with scant bloody vaginal discharge that has been intermittent for the last week. She also has daily nausea and vomiting. She has no abdominal pain or cramping. On abdominal exam, findings are a large-for-dates uterus, but there is no fetal heart tone. The speculum exam is unremarkable except for scant brownish bloody discharge. On bimanual examination, bilateral adnexal tenderness is noted. Cervix is long, closed, and posterior. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in confirming your diagnosis?