A 38-year-old immunocompetent man with Ludwig’s angina is in…
A 38-year-old immunocompetent man with Ludwig’s angina is intubated and started on ampicillin-sulbactam. Blood cultures were obtained prior to antibiotics. After 48 hours, he remains febrile with persistent leukocytosis and no improvement in neck swelling.Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?