A 28-year-old patient comes for intractable headache. She w…
A 28-year-old patient comes for intractable headache. She was tried on multiple medications with no response. She started having blurred vision recently. Her exam is normal except early papilledema. Imaging study of the brain was unrevealing. You recommended lumbar puncture. All CSF tests were normal, except increased CSF opening pressure of 35 cm of water (normal 8-19). Of the following medications, which one is the LEAST likely to be the reason for this patient’s problem?