A 29-year-old with bipolar I disorder has been stable on a m…
A 29-year-old with bipolar I disorder has been stable on a mood stabilizer for the past 18 months. They have a history of one prior healthy pregnancy and is now planning to conceive again. They are concerned about the teratogenic risks of their current medication. Their physical exam and routine labs are unremarkable. Which mood stabilizer is most strongly associated with neural tube defects and should generally be avoided in persons of childbearing potential when possible?