A 37‑year‑old woman presents to the clinic with a 3‑month hi…
A 37‑year‑old woman presents to the clinic with a 3‑month history of recurrent headaches. She describes the pain as a bilateral, band‑like pressure around her forehead that develops toward the end of the workday. The headaches are not worsened by physical activity and are not associated with nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia. Neurological examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy?