A 7 year old boy presents at a physical therapy evaluation w…
A 7 year old boy presents at a physical therapy evaluation with the following: Groin and knee pain (onset 2 weeks ago), Trendelenburg gait due to pain, no redness or rash on either LE, no fever, decreased left hip abduction and internal rotation, otherwise LE ROM is WNL. What does the physical therapist expect is the most likely source of the symptoms?